Prepare NCLEX-RN Question Answers Free Update With 100% Exam Passing Guarantee [2026]
Dumps Real NCLEX NCLEX-RN Exam Questions [Updated 2026]
NCLEX-RN, or National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses, is a certification exam that is required for anyone who wants to become a registered nurse in the United States. NCLEX-RN exam is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, and it is designed to test the knowledge and skills that are necessary for safe and effective nursing practice. The NCLEX-RN is a computerized exam, and it can be taken at Pearson VUE testing centers throughout the country.
NEW QUESTION # 327
A client has had amniocentesis. One of the tests performed on the amniotic fluid is a lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio. The results show a ratio of 1:1. This is indicative of:
- A. Lung immaturity
- B. Intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)
- C. Neural tube defect
- D. Intrauterine infection
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) At about 30-32 weeks' gestation, the amounts of the surfactants, lecithin, and sphingomyelin become equal. As the fetal lungs mature, the concentration of lecithin begins to exceed that of sphingomyelin. At 35 weeks, the L/S ratio is 2:1. Respiratory distress syndrome is unlikely if birth occurs at this time. (B) IUGR is associated with compromised uteroplacental perfusion or with viral infections, chromosomal disorders, congenital malformations, and maternal malnutrition. IUGR is not specifically assessed by analysis of the L/S ratio. (C) Analysis of the L/S ratio is not an assessment used to confirm intrauterine infection. (D) Elevated levels of _-fetoprotein in maternal serum or in amniotic fluid have been found to reflect open neural tube defects, such as spina bifida and anencephaly.
NEW QUESTION # 328
The nurse has been caring for a 16-year-old female who recently experienced date rape. After having had crisis intervention and been hospitalized for 2 weeks, the nurse knows that the client is effectively coping with the rape when she tells the nurse:
- A. "If I had not worn that sexy dress that night, he wouldn't have raped me."
- B. "I know my date just had so much passion he couldn't handle me saying 'no.' "
- C. "I know now that it was not my fault, but I want to continue counseling after my discharge."
- D. "I know it was my fault that it happened, because I shouldn't have been out so late."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set F
Explanation:
(A) This response does not show any insight; the client falsely assumes that she is responsible for the rape. (B) The client continues to falsely assume responsibility for the rapist's behavior. (C) The client believes falsely that rape is an act of passion, rather than one of violence, control, and domination. (D) The client has insight into the rape; she does not believe it was her fault and shows good judgment in deciding to continue with counseling after discharge.
NEW QUESTION # 329
The cardiac client who exhibits the symptoms of disorientation, lethargy, and seizures may be exhibiting a toxic reaction to:
- A. Nitroglycerin IV (Tridil)
- B. Quinidine gluconate or sulfate (Quinaglute, Quinidex)
- C. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
- D. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Side effects of digoxin include headache, hypotension, AV block, blurred vision, and yellow-green halos. (B) Side effects of lidocaine include heart block, headache, dizziness, confusion, tremor, lethargy, and convulsions. (C) Side effects of quinidine include heart block, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and respiratory depression. (D) Side effects of nitroglycerin include postural hypotension, headache, dizziness, and flushing.
NEW QUESTION # 330
A couple is planning the conception of their first child.
The wife, whose normal menstrual cycle is 34 days in length, correctly identifies the time that she is most likely to ovulate if she states that ovulation should occur on day:
- A. 22+2 days
- B. 16+2 days
- C. 20+2 days
- D. 14+2 days
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Ovulation is dependent on average length of menstrual cycle, not standard 14 days. (B) Ovulation occurs
14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 does not equal 16). (C) Ovulation occurs 14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 equals 20). (D) Ovulation occurs 14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 does not equal 22).
NEW QUESTION # 331
What is the most effective method to identify early breast cancer lumps?
- A. Monthly breast self-examination
- B. Mammograms every 3 years
- C. Yearly checkups performed by physician
- D. Ultrasounds every 3 years
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Mammograms are less effective than breast self-examination for the diagnosis of abnormalities in younger women, who have denser breast tissue. They are more effective forwomen older than 40. (B) Up to 15% of early-stage breast cancers are detected by physical examination; however, 95% are detected by women doing breast self-examination. (C) Ultrasound is used primarily to determine the location of cysts and to distinguish cysts from solid masses. (D) Monthly breast self-examination has been shown to be the most effective method for early detection of breast cancer. Approximately 95% of lumps are detected by women themselves.
NEW QUESTION # 332
A child sustains a supracondylar fracture of the femur. When assessing for vascular injury, the nurse should be alert for the signs of ischemia, which include:
- A. Increase in serum levels of creatinine, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate transaminase
- B. Bleeding, bruising, and hemorrhage
- C. Generalized swelling, pain, and diminished functional use with muscle rigidity and crepitus
- D. Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Bleeding, bruising, and hemorrhage may occur due to injury but are not classic signs of ischemia. (B) An increase in serum levels of creatinine, alkaline phosphatase, and aspartate transaminase is related to the disruption of muscle integrity. (C) Classic signs of ischemia related to vascular injury secondary to long bone fractures include the five "P's": pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis. (D) Generalized swelling, pain, and diminished functional use with muscle rigidity and crepitus are common clinical manifestations of a fracture but not ischemia.
NEW QUESTION # 333
The nurse is trying to help a mother understand what is happening with her son who has recently been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. At present, he is experiencing hallucinations and delusions of persecution and suffers from poor hygiene. The nurse can best help her understand her son's condition by which of the following statements?
- A. "Some of his symptoms may be a result of his lack of a strong mother-child bonding relationship."
- B. "If your son has a twin, he probably will eventually develop schizophrenia, too."
- C. "Sometimes these symptoms are caused by an overstimulation of a chemical called dopamine in the brain."
- D. "Has anyone in your family ever had schizophrenia?"
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The most plausible theory to date is that dopamine causes an overstimulation in the brain, which results in the psychotic symptoms. (B) This statement will only create anxiety in the mother, and the genetic theory is only one of the etiological factors. (C) This statement will cause the mother much alarm, and nothing was mentioned about any other child. (D) The motherchild relationship is one of the previous theories examined, but it is not one to be emphasized, thereby causing a lot of anxiety for the mother.
NEW QUESTION # 334
The nurse knows that children are more susceptible to respiratory tract infections owing to physiological differences. These childhood differences, when compared to an adult, include:
- A. Larger number of alveoli, diaphragmatic breathing
- B. Diaphragmatic breathing, larger volume of air
- C. Rounded shape of chest, smaller volume of air
- D. Fewer alveoli, slower respiratory rate
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Although a child has fewer alveoli than an adult, the child's respiratory rate is faster. (B) Although a child may use diaphragmatic breathing, the adult exchanges a larger volume of air. (C) The adult has a larger number of alveoli than a child. (D) The child's chest is rounded whereas the adult chest is more of an oval shape, and the child does exchange a smaller volume of air than an adult.
NEW QUESTION # 335
Hypoxia is the primary problem related to near-drowning victims. The first organ that sustains irreversible damage after submersion in water is the:
- A. Kidney (urinary system)
- B. Heart (circulatory system)
- C. Brain (nervous system)
- D. Lungs (respiratory system)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The kidney can survive after 30 minutes of water submersion. (B) The cerebral neurons sustain irreversible damage after 4-6 minutes of water submersion. (C) The heart can survive up to 30 minutes of water submersion. (D) The lungs can survive up to 30 minutes of water submersion.
NEW QUESTION # 336
A client who has gout is most likely to form which type of renal calculi?
- A. Staghorn calculi
- B. Calcium stones
- C. Struvite stones
- D. Uric acid stones
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The presence of urinary tract infection is a factor in the formation of struvite stones. (B) Staghorn calculi is the other name for struvite stones associated with urinary tract infection. (C) Clients who have gout form uric acid stones. (D) Clients who have increased urinary excretion of calcium form calcium stones.
NEW QUESTION # 337
A male client is scheduled to have angiography of his left leg. The nurse needs to include which of the following when preparing the client for this procedure?
- A. Instruct him to start active range of motion of his left leg immediately following the procedure.
- B. Inform him that he will not be able to eat or drink anything for 4 hours after the procedure.
- C. Validate that he is not allergic to iodine or shellfish.
- D. Inform him that vital signs will be taken every hour for 4 hours after the procedure.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Angiography, an invasive radiographic examination, involves the injection of a contrast solution (iodine) through a catheter that has been inserted into an artery. (B) The client is kept on complete bed rest for 6-12 hours after the procedure. The extremity in which the catheter was inserted must be immobilized and kept straight during this time. (C) The contrast dye, iodine, is nephrotoxic. The client must be instructed to drink a large quantity of fluids to assist the kidneys in excreting this contrast media. (D) The major complication of this procedure is hemorrhage. Vital signs are assessed every 15 minutes initially for signs of bleeding.
NEW QUESTION # 338
A male client is experiencing extreme distress. He begins to pace up and down the corridor. What nursing intervention is appropriate when communicating with the pacing client?
- A. Walk with him as he paces.
- B. Ask him to sit down. Speak slowly and use short, simple sentences.
- C. Increase the level of his supervision.
- D. Help him to recognize his anxiety.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The nurse should not ask him to sit down. Pacing is the activity he has chosen to deal with his anxiety.
The nurse dealing with this client should speak slowly and with short, simplesentences. (B) The client may already recognize the anxiety and is attempting to deal with it. (C) Walk with the client as he paces. This gives support while he uses anxiety-generated energy. (D) Increasing the level of supervision may be appropriate after he stops pacing. It would minimize self-injury and/or loss of control.
NEW QUESTION # 339
The usual treatment for diabetes insipidus is with IM or SC injection of vasopressin tannate in oil. Nursing care related to the client receiving IM vasopressin tannate would include:
- A. Hold the vial under warm water for 10-15 minutes and shake vigorously before drawing medication into the syringe.
- B. Weigh once a week and report to the physician any weight gain of10 lb.
- C. Limit fluid intake to 500 mL/day.
- D. Store the medication in a refrigerator and allow to stand at room temperature for 30 minutes prior to administration.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set A
Explanation:
(A) Weight should be obtained daily. (B) Fluid is not restricted but is given according to urine output. (C) The medication does not have to be stored in a refrigerator. (D) Holding the vial under warm water for 10-15 minutes or rolling between your hands and shaking vigorously before drawing medication into the syringe activates the medication in the oil solution.
NEW QUESTION # 340
Three hours postoperatively, a 27-year-old client complains of right leg pain after knee reduction. The first action by the nurse will be to:
- A. Remind the client that he has a client-controlled analgesic pump, and reinstruct him on its use
- B. Assess vital signs
- C. Perform a lower extremity neurovascular check
- D. Elevate the extremity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Vital signs may be altered if there is acute pain or complications related to bleeding or swelling, but they should not be assessed before checking the affected extremity. (B) The extremity will be elevated if ordered by the doctor. (C) Assessment of the postoperative area is important to determine if bleeding, swelling, or decreased circulation is occurring. (D) Reinforcement of teaching on use of the client-controlled analgesic pump is important, but not the first action.
NEW QUESTION # 341
A 3-month-old infant has had a unilateral cleft lip repair. He has resumed feedings of oral formula. The nurse should feed the infant with:
- A. Nipple and bottle
- B. Gavage tube
- C. A straw and cup
- D. Syringe
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) A gavage tube may damage suture line. It is the most invasive and should be the last measure. (B) A nipple and bottle require sucking, which may damage sutures. (C) A 3-month-old infant is not able to drink from a straw. (D) A syringe allows for the formula to be placed to the side and back of the mouth. This minimizes the amount of sucking needed.
NEW QUESTION # 342
Which of the following serum laboratory values would the nurse monitor during gentamicin therapy?
- A. Sodium
- B. Creatinine
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) A common side effect of gentamicin is nephrotoxicity. The serum laboratory test that best reflects kidney function is serum creatinine. (B) Serum sodium has no relationship to gentamicin. (C) Serum calcium has no relationship to gentamicin. (D) Serum potassium has no relationship to gentamicin. If a client has impaired renal function secondary to gentamicin administration, he or she may also have hyperkalemia as a secondary disorder.
NEW QUESTION # 343
A client calls the prenatal clinic to schedule an appointment. She states she has missed three menstrual periods and thinks she might be pregnant. During her first visit to the prenatal clinic, it is confirmed that she is pregnant. The registered nurse (RN) learns that her last menstrual period began on June 10. According to Naegele's rule, the estimated date of confinement is:
- A. August 30
- B. January 10
- C. March 17
- D. June 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) Using Naegele's rule, count back 3 calendar months from the first day of the last menstrual period. The answer is March 10. Then add 7 days and 1 year, which would be March 17 of the following year. (B, C, D) This date is incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 344
Children often experience visual impairments. Refractive errors affect the child's visual activity. The main refractive error seen in children is myopia. The nurse explains to the child's parents that myopia may also be described as:
- A. Nearsightedness
- B. Cataracts
- C. Farsightedness
- D. Lazy eye
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Cataracts are not considered refractive errors. Cataracts canbe described as opacity of the lens. (B)Hyperopiais the term forfarsightedness. One can see objects at a distance more clearlythan close objects. (C)Myopiais the term for nearsightedness.Objects that are close in distance are more clearly seen. (D) Lazyeye refers to strabismus or misalignment of the eyes.
NEW QUESTION # 345
Parents of young children often need anticipatory guidance from the nurse. Parents may have little knowledge regarding growth and development. Which of the following toys and activities would the nurse suggest as appropriate for a toddler?
- A. Pull-toys, large ball, dolls, sand and water play, music
- B. Cutting, pasting, string beads, music, dolls
- C. Mobiles, rattle, squeeze toys
- D. Simple card games, puzzles, bicycle, television
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) These activities are suited for the preschool-age child (3-5 years old). The activities are not safe for a toddler. (B) Infants (0-1 year) like these toys. (C) These activities provide the toddler (1-3 years old) with a variety of physical activities for play. (D) The toddler lacks the physical and cognitive abilities for these activities. The tasks are far better suited for the school-age child.
NEW QUESTION # 346
Early in her ninth month of pregnancy, a client has been diagnosed as having mild preeclampsia. In counseling her about her diet, the nurse must emphasize the importance of:
- A. Eating a moderate to high-protein diet
- B. Increasing her carbohydrate intake
- C. Decreasing her fluids
- D. Decreasing her sodium intake
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Women with pregnancy-induced hypertension have a reduced plasma volume secondary to venous vessel constriction, not hypovolemia; therefore, sodium restriction is not recommended. It is suggested that these women avoid extremely salty foods. (B) Drinking six to eight glasses of water per day facilitates optimal fluid volume and renal perfusion, but it will not decrease the venous vessel constriction of pregnancy-induced hypertension. (C) Carbohydrate needs increase during pregnancy, specifically during the second and third trimesters, but they have not been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension. (D) Loss of urinary protein (proteinuria) is associated with increased permeability of the large protein molecules with pregnancy-induced hypertension.Additional dietary protein also helps increase the plasma colloidal osmotic pressure. Diets deficient in protein have been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension.
NEW QUESTION # 347
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