[Nov 20, 2023] 100% Pass Guarantee for NCLEX-RN Dumps with Actual Exam Questions
Today Updated NCLEX-RN Exam Dumps Actual Questions
NCLEX-RN exam consists of a series of multiple-choice questions that test an individual's knowledge and understanding of various nursing concepts and practices. These questions are designed to assess a nurse's ability to think critically and make informed decisions in real-life situations. NCLEX-RN exam also includes a number of alternate-format questions, such as fill-in-the-blank and select-all-that-apply questions, that require test-takers to think creatively and problem-solve in order to arrive at the correct answer.
NCLEX-RN exam is a critical step in the process of becoming a registered nurse. It is a comprehensive exam that assesses the candidate's knowledge and skills in various areas of nursing practice. Passing NCLEX-RN exam is a requirement for licensure in the United States and Canada, and it is essential for ensuring that nurses provide safe and effective care to their patients.
NEW QUESTION # 266
Several months after antibiotic therapy, a child is readmitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of osteomyelitis, which is now in the chronic stage. The mother appears anxious and asks what she could have done to prevent the exacerbation. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that chronic osteomyelitis:
- A. May develop from sinuses in the involved bone that retain infectious material
- B. Is caused by poor physical conditions or poor nutrition
- C. Often results from unhygienic conditions or an unclean environment
- D. Is directly related to sluggish circulation in the affected limb
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Poor nutrition and/or poor physical conditions are factors that predispose to the development of osteomyelitis but do not cause it. (B) An unclean or unhygienic environment may predispose to the development of chronic osteomyelitis, but it does not cause an exacerbation of the previous infection. (C) Sluggish circulation through the medullary cavity during acute osteomyelitis may delay healing, but it does not cause the disease to become chronic. (D) Areas of sequestrum may be surrounded by dense bone, become honeycombed with sinuses, and retain infectious organisms for a long time.
NEW QUESTION # 267
A 44-year-old female client is receiving external radiation to her scapula for metastasis of breast cancer.
Teaching related to skin care for the client would include which of the following?
- A. Teach her to completely clean the skin to remove all ointments and markings after each treatment.
- B. Teach her to cover broken skin in the treated area with a medicated ointment.
- C. Encourage her to wear a tight-fitting vest to support her scapula.
- D. Encourage her to avoid direct sunlight on the area being treated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The skin in a treatment area should be rinsed with water and patted dry. Markings should be left intact, and the skin should not be scrubbed. (B) Clients should avoid putting any creams or lotions on the treated area.
This could interfere with treatment. (C) Radiation therapy clients should wear loose-fitting clothes and avoid tight, irritating fabrics. (D) The area of skin being treated is sensitive to sunlight, and the client should take care to prevent sun damage by avoiding direct sunlight and covering the area when she is in the sun.
NEW QUESTION # 268
A client confides to the nurse that he tasted poison in his evening meal. This would be an example of what type of hallucination?
- A. Visceral
- B. Auditory
- C. Olfactory
- D. Gustatory
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Auditory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of hearing. (B) Gustatory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of taste. (C) Olfactory hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of smell. (D) Visceral hallucinations involve sensory perceptions of sensation.
NEW QUESTION # 269
Medication is administered to a client who has been placed in restraints after a sudden violent episode, and his EPSs subside. Restraints can be removed when:
- A. A therapeutic alliance has been established, and violent behavior subsides
- B. The violent behavior subsides, and the client agrees to behave
- C. The physician orders it
- D. The nurse deems that removal of restraints is necessary
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set F
Explanation:
(A) The physician may order release of restraints, but prior to that, the client must meet criteria for release. (B) While the client is still restrained, but after violent behavior has subsided, a therapeutic bridge is built. This alliance encourages dialogue between nurse and client, allowing the client to determine causative factors, feelings prior to loss of control, and adaptive alternatives to violence. (C) If the client only "agrees to behave" after violent behavior subsides, he has developed no insight into cause and effect of violence or his response to stress. (D)Removal of restraints occurs only when the client meets the criteria for release, not just because the nurse says it is necessary.
NEW QUESTION # 270
A 9-month-old infant is being examined in the general pediatric clinic for a routine well-child checkup. His immunizations are up to date, and his mother reports that he has had no significant illnesses or injuries. Which of the following signs would lead the nurse to believe that he has had a cerebral injury?
- A. Significant head lag when raised to a sitting position
- B. Hyperextension of the neck with evidence of pain on flexion
- C. Holding the head erect and in the midline when in a vertical position
- D. Holding the head to one side and pointing the chin toward the other side
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This position is indicative of a possible meningeal irritation or infection such as meningitis. (B) This position is seen most frequently in infants who have had an injury to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. (C) Most infants aged 4 months and older are able to maintain this position. (D) Infants older than 6 months of age should not have significant head lag. This is a sign of cerebral injury and should be referred for further evaluation.
NEW QUESTION # 271
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with an electrolyte imbalance and identifies a nursing diagnosis of decreased physical mobility. Which alteration is most likely the etiology?
- A. Hypomagnesemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) A deficit in sodium concentration results in muscular weakness and lethargy. (B) Muscle fatigue and hypotonia are caused by hypercalcemia. (C) Muscle weakness and fatigue are classic signs of hypokalemia.
(D) Hypermagnesemia can cause muscle weakness, paralysis, and coma.
NEW QUESTION # 272
Which of the following blood values would require further nursing action in a newborn who is 4 hours old?
- A. White blood cells 18,000/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin 17.2 g/dL
- C. Serum glucose 30 mg/dL
- D. Platelets 250,000/mm3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The normal range for hemoglobin in the newborn is 17-19 g/dL; 17.2 g/dL is within normal limits. (B) A normal value range for platelets in the newborn is 150,000-400,000 mm3; 250,000/mm3 is within normal range. (C) A serum glucose of 30 mg/dL in the first 72 hours of life is indicative of hypoglycemia and warrants further intervention. (D) On the day of birth, a white blood cell count of 18,000-40,000/mm3 is normal in the newborn.
NEW QUESTION # 273
A female client admitted to the labor and delivery unit thinks her bag of water "broke" approximately 2 hours ago. She is having mild contractions 5 minutes apart. The most immediate nursing intervention would be to:
- A. Note the color and amount of fluid on her clothes.
- B. Notify the physician.
- C. Assess the FHR.
- D. Place the nitrazine test paper at the cervical os and note the color change.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Amniotic fluid is generally pale and straw colored. Meconium- stained amniotic fluid would indicate a previous hypoxic episode. This intervention, though appropriate, is not the immediate priority. (B) With rupture of the membranes, the umbilical cord may prolapse if the presenting part does not fill the pelvis.
Assessing FHR ascertains fetal well-being. (C) More information regarding fetal status and assessing for membrane rupture is needed prior to contacting the physician. (D) Nitrazine test paper differentiates amniotic fluid from urine. Amniotic fluid is normally alkaline in contrast to urine, which is acidic. This intervention, though appropriate, is not the immediate priority.
NEW QUESTION # 274
A behavioral modification program is recommended by the multidisciplinary team working with a 15-year- old client with anorexia nervosa. A nursing plan of care based on this modality would include:
- A. Restriction to the unit until she has gained 2 lb
- B. Encouraging her to verbalize her feelings concerning food and food intake
- C. Role playing the client's eating behaviors
- D. Provision for a high-calorie, high-protein snack between meals
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This answer is incorrect. Role playing is based on learning but is not based on the behavioral modification model. (B) This answer is correct. The behavioral modification model is based on negative and positive reinforcers to change behavior. (C) This answer is incorrect. Verbal catharsis is not an intervention based on behavioral modification. (D) This answer is incorrect. Although an acceptable nursing intervention, it is not based on behavioral modification.
NEW QUESTION # 275
A nurse should carefully monitor a client for the following side effect of MgSO4:
- A. Visual blurring
- B. Epigastric pain
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Tachypnea
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A, C) The nurse should provide good distractors because these symptoms indicate that PIH has become more severe and may precede the convulsive or eclamptic phase. (B) This is the opposite-side effect of this medication. (D) This is a common side effect of this medication and needs to be monitored and recorded frequently.
NEW QUESTION # 276
A client hospitalized with a medical diagnosis of adjustment disorder versus personality disorder states, "Nobody cares about the clients." The nurse's most effective response would be:
- A. "You will feel differently about us in a few days."
- B. "You seem angry. Tell me more about how you feel."
- C. "How can you say that I don't care? We just met."
- D. "What makes you think the nurses don't care?"
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) This statement is a defensive response that places the nurse in a vulnerable countertransference position, and at the same time, fails to challenge the client's "splitting" behavior. (B) This statement is a defensive response by the nurse. In addition, this type of nontherapeutic statement requests that the client explain the reasons for her behavior, a difficult task for an individual with limited insight. (C) This statement is a nontherapeutic response that both ignores the intensity of the client's emotions and the dynamics underlying "splitting" behavior. (D) By simultaneously acknowledging the client's emotional intensity and gently challenging her "splitting" behavior, the nurse addresses the client's current distortions and prepares for further interventions with angry or ambivalent feelings.
NEW QUESTION # 277
A male client is undergoing cardiac tests. He has been instructed to wear a Holter monitor. The nurse knows she has included the appropriate information in her teaching when the client tells her:
- A. "He should remove the electrodes for bathing."
- B. "He is to refrain from activities that cause chest pain."
- C. "Damage to his heart muscle will be recorded by the monitor."
- D. "He is to keep a record of everything he does during the day."
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The client should leave the electrodes in place during the entire time the test is ordered. He should not even remove the electrodes for bathing. (B) The Holter monitor will record cardiac electrical activity but will not record damage to his myocardium. (C) The client should keep a record of all of his activities so the physician can correlate the ECG findings with his activities. (D) The client should continue doing his regular activities. The purpose of the Holter monitor is to record heart activity during routine activities.
NEW QUESTION # 278
A 29-year-old client delivered her fifth child by the Lamaze method and developed a postpartal hemorrhage in the recovery room. What are the initial symptoms of shock that she may experience?
- A. Marked elevation in blood pressure, respirations, and pulse
- B. Decreased systolic pressure, cold skin, and anuria
- C. No urinary output, tachycardia, and restlessness
- D. Rapid pulse; narrowed pulse pressure; cool, moist skin
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Early shock does not exhibit the symptom of marked elevation in blood pressure. A narrowing of the pulse pressure is indicative of early shock. (B) Anuria is a clinical finding in late shock. (C) All of these clinical findings are congruent with early shock. (D) Absence of urinary output is a clinical finding in the late phase of shock.
NEW QUESTION # 279
A psychiatric nurse is providing an orientation to a new staff nurse. She reminds the nurse that psychiatrists often use categories of medications and that it is important that she recall that some categories of medications have synonyms. Another name used to describe minor tranquilizers is which of the following?
- A. Antianxiety medications
- B. Antimania medication
- C. Antipsychotic medications
- D. Antidepressant medications
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Antipsychotic medications are also known as major tranquilizers. (B) Antidepressants fall into different categories, such as the tricyclics or the MAO inhibitors. (C) Antianxiety medications are also known as minor tranquilizers. (D) Antimania medications are those such as lithium and lithium carbonate (Lithobid).
NEW QUESTION # 280
The nurse has been caring for a 16-year-old female who recently experienced date rape. After having had crisis intervention and been hospitalized for 2 weeks, the nurse knows that the client is effectively coping with the rape when she tells the nurse:
- A. "If I had not worn that sexy dress that night, he wouldn't have raped me."
- B. "I know now that it was not my fault, but I want to continue counseling after my discharge."
- C. "I know it was my fault that it happened, because I shouldn't have been out so late."
- D. "I know my date just had so much passion he couldn't handle me saying 'no.' "
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) This response does not show any insight; the client falsely assumes that she is responsible for the rape. (B) The client continues to falsely assume responsibility for the rapist's behavior. (C) The client believes falsely that rape is an act of passion, rather than one of violence, control, and domination. (D) The client has insight into the rape; she does not believe it was her fault and shows good judgment in deciding to continue with counseling after discharge.
NEW QUESTION # 281
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