UPDATED [May 12, 2026] Pass Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE) Written Exam Exam with Latest Questions
400-007 Exam Practice Questions prepared by Cisco Professionals
Cisco 400-007, also known as the Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE v3.0) Written Exam, is a professional-level certification exam that measures a candidate's expertise in network design principles and methodologies. 400-007 exam is designed for experienced network architects, engineers, and designers who are involved in the planning, design, implementation, and maintenance of complex enterprise networks.
Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE v3.0) Written Certification Exam, also known as Cisco 400-007, is a professional-level certification exam designed for experienced network architects and designers who are seeking to validate their expert-level knowledge and skills in designing complex network infrastructure solutions. Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE) Written Exam certification exam is part of the Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE) certification program, which is recognized worldwide as one of the most prestigious and respected design credentials in the networking industry.
The CCDE certification is widely recognized in the industry as a mark of expertise and excellence in network design. It is intended for professionals who work in large-scale network environments and are responsible for designing and implementing complex network infrastructures. The CCDE certification also demonstrates an individual's ability to think strategically and prioritize business needs when designing networks, making them a valuable asset to any organization. The Cisco 400-007 exam is the first step towards achieving this prestigious certification.
NEW QUESTION # 134
Which two benefits can software-defined networks provide to businesses? (Choose two.)
- A. meets high traffic demands
- B. enables innovation
- C. decentralized management
- D. provides additional redundancy
- E. reduced latency
- F. reduction of OpEx/CapEx
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
SDN enables innovation by allowing programmability and faster deployment of new services.
SDN reduces OpEx/CapEx by centralizing control, automating tasks, and optimizing resource utilization.
NEW QUESTION # 135
A network becomes unintentionally segmented when remote sites connect to HQ only via the public Internet.
Which option helps de-segment the network?
- A. Build virtual networks that pass over the network
- B. Configure little to no control data plane policy
- C. Block specific sources from reaching specific destinations
- D. Mark traffic for special handling through quality of service
Answer: A
Explanation:
# Explanation:
* A: Virtual networks (e.g., VPNs, tunnels) create secure, logical overlays across segmented physical infrastructure such as the public Internet, effectively re-integrating remote sites into the corporate network. This re-establishes end-to-end connectivity and consistent routing/security policies.
Other options:
* B: QoS does not address segmentation or connectivity.
* C: Lax control-plane policies do not restore logical network integration and may increase security risk.
* D: Blocking traffic further limits connectivity and exacerbates segmentation.
NEW QUESTION # 136
Openflow is one of the first software-defined networking(SDN) standards and defined the communication protocol between SDN controllers and the forwarding plane of networking devices.
Which two benefits does the OpenFlow protocol provide to SDN architecture? (Choose two.)
- A. Optimizes services.
- B. Differentiates features.
- C. simplifies provisioning.
- D. Accelerates performance
- E. Granular policy management.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Simplifies provisioning: Centralized controller programming of flow tables greatly simplifies provisioning and reconfiguration.
Granular policy management: Per-flow control allows very fine-grained policies on traffic types, paths, and security.
NEW QUESTION # 137
Refer to the table. A customer investigates connectivity options for a DCI between two production data centers to aid a large-scale migration project. The migration is estimated to take 20 months to complete but might extend an additional 10 months if issues arise. All connectivity options meet the requirements to migrate workloads.
Which transport technology provides the best ROI based on cost and flexibility?
- A. CWDM over dark fiber
- B. MPLS
- C. Metro Ethernet
- D. DWDM over dark fiber
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which parameter is the most important factor to consider when deciding service placement in a cloud solution?
- A. data replication cost
- B. data confidentiality rules
- C. security framework Implementation time
- D. application structure
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 139
A banking customer determines that it is operating POS and POI terminals that are noncompliant with PCI DSS requirements, as it is running TLSv1.0. The customer plans to migrate the terminals to TLSv1.2. What are two requirements to complete the migration? (Choose two.)
- A. Apply strong cryptography and security protocols to safeguard sensitive cardholder data.
- B. Protect all user systems against malware and frequently update antivirus software
- C. Apply strong encryption for transmission of cardholder data across public networks.
- D. Ensure that strong cryptography is applied for users who have administrative access through networks
- E. Maintain a policy that addresses information security for employees and third parties.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
* B (Strong cryptography for cardholder data):PCI DSS requires strong cryptographic protocols (e.g.
TLS 1.2 or higher) to protect sensitive data during processing and storage.
* C (Strong encryption for transmission):Data-in-transit across public or untrusted networks must be encrypted using strong protocols to comply with PCI DSS.
Other options explained:
* A/D/E: These are general security best practices but not directly tied to TLS upgrade compliance for cardholder data under PCI DSS.
NEW QUESTION # 140
Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 141
What are two examples of components that are part of an SDN architecture? (Choose two.)
- A. network plane
- B. software plane
- C. management plane
- D. application plane
- E. control plane
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION # 142
Which two technologies enable multilayer segmentation? (Choose two.)
- A. firewalls
- B. data plane markings
- C. filter lists
- D. policy-based routing
- E. segment routing
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 143
Company XYZ wants to implement an IPS device to detect and block well-known attacks against their network. They want a design solution where all packets that are forwarded to the network are checked against a signature database before being allowed through. This check must be done with the minimum effect on performance. Which design is recommended?
- A. Deploy an IPS behind the firewall in promiscuous mode
- B. Deploy and IPS in front of the firewall in in-line mode
- C. Deploy an IPS behind the firewall in in-line mode
- D. Deploy an IPS in front of the firewall in promiscuous mode
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 144
Drag and drop the multicast protocols from the left onto the current design situation on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
A picture containing table Description automatically generated
IPv4:
Host Registration - IGMP
Router Registration - PIM-DM, PIM-SM, SSM, BIDIR
Inter-Domain Source Discovery - MSDP
IPv6:
Host Registration - MLD
Router Registration - PIM-SM, SSM, BIDIR
NEW QUESTION # 145
An existing wireless network was designed to support data traffic only. You must now install context-aware services for location tracking. What changes must be applied to the existing wireless network to increase the location accuracy? (Choose two)
- A. Add access points along the perimeter of the coverage area.
- B. Install additional access points in monitor mode where the co-channel interference would otherwise be affected.
- C. Use directional antennas to provide more cell overlapping.
- D. Fine tune the radio configuration of the access point to have a higher average transmission power to achieve better coverage.
- E. Increase the access point density to create an average inter-access point distance of less than 40 feet or
12.2 meters.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
For accurate location tracking in wireless networks, signal triangulation methods like RSSI, TDoA, or Angle of Arrival require:
* A (Perimeter coverage): Adding APs along the perimeter improves location accuracy by minimizing blind spots and improving triangulation geometry.
* B (Higher density, <40 ft spacing): Reducing inter-AP distance increases overlapping coverage, which provides more data points for accurate positioning.
Other options explained:
* C: Directional antennas limit overlapping coverage, reducing triangulation accuracy.
* D: Monitor mode APs can assist in location services but are secondary to proper placement and density.
* E: Increasing transmit power may enlarge cell size but can decrease accuracy by reducing overlapping AP zones.
NEW QUESTION # 146
An architect receives a functional requirement for a NAC system from a customer security policy stating that if a corporate Wi-Fi device does not meet current AV definitions, then it cannot access the corporate network until the definitions are updated. Which component should be built into the NAC design?
- A. posture assessment with remediation VLAN
- B. quarantine VLAN
- C. dACLs with SGTs
- D. quarantine SGTs
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 147
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the FCAPS network management reference models from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 148
A Service Provider is designing a solution for a managed CE service to a number of local customers using a single CE platform and wants to have logical separation on the CE platform using Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) based on IP address ranges or packet length. Which is the most scalable solution to provide this type of VRF Selection process on the CE edge device?
- A. Static Routes for Route Leaking
- B. OSPF per VRF Instance
- C. Policy Based Routing
- D. Multi-Protocol BGP
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 149
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is designing the traffic flow for AS 111. Traffic from AS 111 should be preferred via AS 100 for all external routes. A method must be used that only affects AS 111. Which BGP attributes are best suited to control outbound traffic?
- A. local preference
- B. community
- C. MED
- D. As path
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 150
Refer to the exhibit. A customer needs to implement a connectivity model by using one active link for inbound and outbound traffic and a second link for backup. The backup link is low speed and is required only during outages of the primary link. Which design solution should be implemented?
- A. Advertise a longer AS PATH to ISP 2. Increase the MED to ISP 2.
- B. Advertise a higher local preference to ISP 2. Increase the AS PATH inbound from ISP 1.
- C. Advertise less specific routes to ISP 2. Increase the AS PATH inbound from ISP 1.
- D. Advertise more specific routes to ISP 1. Increase the local preference attribute of inbound BGP from ISP1.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To implement a primary and backup link design, a common approach is to manipulate BGP attributes such as AS PATH and MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator). By advertising a longer AS PATH to ISP 2, the primary link (ISP 1) is preferred due to its shorter AS PATH. Increasing the MED to ISP 2 also helps in making it less preferred unless the primary link fails, thereby making ISP 2 the backup link.
NEW QUESTION # 151
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the design use cases from the left onto the correct uRPF techniques used to prevent spoofing attacks. Not all options are used.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 152
A European national bank considers migrating its on-premises systems to a private cloud offering in a non-European location to significantly reduce IT costs. What is a primary factor prior to migration?
- A. additional latency
- B. security
- C. cloud connectivity
- D. data governance
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 153
A network attacker exploits application flaws to compromise critical systems in the organization with these objectives:
* Obtain sensitive data and export the data out of the network.
* Compromise developer and administrator credentials to potentially
What is the next step after application discovery is completed in Zero Trust networkings
- A. Assess real-time security health.
- B. Enforce policies and microsegmentation.
- C. Ensure trustworthiness of systems.
- D. Establish visibility and behavior modeling
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise/design-zone-security/zt-arch-guide.html
NEW QUESTION # 154
SDN emerged as a technology trend that attracted many industries to move from traditional networks to SDN. Which challenge is solved by SDN for cloud service providers?
- A. need for intelligent traffic monitoring
- B. complex and distributed management flow
- C. higher operating expense and capital expenditure
- D. exponential growth of resource-intensive application
Answer: B
Explanation:
The goal of SDN is to provide centralized management instead of distributed.
NEW QUESTION # 155
......
400-007 Exam Practice Materials Collection: https://www.torrentvalid.com/400-007-valid-braindumps-torrent.html
Use Valid New 400-007 Questions - Top choice Help You Gain Success: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1uk8BL3LOPwZJm-i-UfYYIOyOJdsqRABu