[Jan-2023] Pass ASCP ASCP-MLT Tests Engine pdf - All Free Dumps
MEDICAL LABORATORY TECHNICIAN - MLT(ASCP) Practice Tests 2023 | Pass ASCP-MLT with confidence!
NEW QUESTION 321
Which of the following genotypes cause beta thalassemia minor?
- A. B0/B0
- B. B+/B
- C. B0/B
- D. B/B
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 322
MCH is the average weight of hemoglobin in the average red blood cell. The value is expressed in picograms (10-12 grams).
Hematology
Hemoglobin (g/100ml) x 10 / RBC count (millions/mm3) is the formula for calculating:
- A. RDW
- B. MCV
- C. MCHC
- D. MCH
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 323
Duffy antigens are rendered inactive by enzyme treatments since the enzyme will remove the sialic acid from the RBC membrane. This process destroys: M, N, S, s, and Duffy antigens. The process enhances the reactions for Rh, Kidd, Lewis, I, and P antigens.
When performing an antibody panel, which one of the following antigens will be rendered inactive by enzyme treatment?
- A. anti-Jka
- B. anti-Fya
- C. anti-Lua
- D. anti-E
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 324
The clue to the identification of the colony seen in the upper frame is the gram stain in the lower frame, in which are seen short, rounded, gram positive bacilli, many of which possess distinct spores. As the colonies grew aerobically, the presence of spores indicates Bacillus species. The colonies are spreading, smooth, yellow-white and non-hemolytic. The lack of hemolysis and the small size of the bacterial cells suggests a species other than Bacillus cereus, the species causing most human infections. The isolate was identified as Bacillus circulans, which is consistent with the gram stain morphology. Clostridium septicum also produces spores; however, this species is an anaerobe and would grow poorly if at all and not produce spores aerobically. Listeria monocytogenes and Lactobacillus species are gram positive bacilli; however, neither of these produce spores.
The colonies seen in the upper frame, grown after 48 hours incubation aerobically at 35°C, and the accompanying gram stain in the lower frame are uncommonly associated with human disease, but have been associated with septicemia, bronchopneumonia, osteomyelitis and other infections, particularly in intravenous drug users. The most likely identification is:
- A. Lactobacillus species
- B. Bacillus circulans
- C. Clostridium septicum
- D. Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 325
C. immitis is a dimorphic fungus which can be isolated from sputum specimens of infected individuals. When grown on Sabouraud's agar at 25o it grows as a mold with white aerial mycelium in about 3 to 5 days. C.
immitis is known to produce arthroconidia which are "barrel-shaped" after 1 to 2 weeks of growth.
Within three days at 28 ºC a sputum specimen placed on Sabouraud's dextrose agar with chloramphenicol and cycloheximide produced moist, grayish growth, with a white aerial mycelium, the organism is MOST likely:
- A. Cryptococcus neoformans
- B. Histoplasma capsulatum
- C. Aspergillus fumigatus
- D. Coccidioides immitis
- E. Blastomyces dermatitidis
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 326
Which of the following fields is NOT an aspect of clinical microbiology?
- A. bacteriology
- B. pathology
- C. parasitology
- D. virology
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 327
Thin-layer chromatography has the advantage of being able to test for a large number of drugs at the same time.
Thin-layer chromatography is particularly useful as a tool in the identification of:
- A. Enzymes
- B. Hormones
- C. Drugs
- D. Steroids
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 328
Platelet neutralization tests are one of the confirmatory tests that can be used to determine if a patient has a circulating lupus antibody, or lupus anticoagulant. The principle in this test involved the use of a freeze-thawed platelet suspension that, when mixed with the patient plasma, will neutralize the anti-phospholipid antibodies (lupus anticoagulant) present and allow for a corrected aPTT result upon re-testing.
A patient has a history of repeated spontaneous abortion. Coagulation studies reveal an elevated APTT, normal PT, normal platelet function, and normal clotting time. Schistocytes were seen on the peripheral blood smear.
Which test should be performed to determine if the patient has lupus anticoagulant?
- A. Factor VIII assay
- B. platelet neutralization test
- C. antinuclear antibody test
- D. mixing studies with factor-deficient plasma
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 329
Monoclonal antibodies are monospecific antibodies that are the same because they are made by one type of immune cell which are all clones of a unique parent cell, also called a hybrid cell line, which usually arise from a hybridoma. The fusion of a specific antibody-producing lymphocyte with a myeloma cell will multiply to become a source of pure monoclonal antibody. This is often used in the manufacturing process for monoclonal antibody reagents.
Monoclonal antibodies are usually manufactured in vitro by using:
- A. Cultured T cells
- B. Cytotoxic T cell
- C. Human plasma cells
- D. Hybridomas
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 330
The body of a tapeworm is composed of successive segments known as proglottids. Each mature proglottid has both male and female reproductive structures.
What is the anatomical feature of a tapeworm that possesses both male and female reproductive structures?
- A. Scolex
- B. Brood capsule
- C. Rostellum
- D. Proglottid
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 331
Myoglobin rises typically within 2-4 hours after a myocardial infarction and stay elevated for days, with a peak at the 6-9-hour mark post-MI. After myoglobin, troponin is the next fastest to rise afer a mycardial infarction and can rise within 3-4 hours with a peak around 12 hours post-MI. LD (8-12 hours, 24-48 hour peak) and CK (4-6 hours with peak at 24-36 hours) will also rise after MI, but are not as fast to rise as myoglobin and troponin.
Chemistry
A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute chest pain, but which of the following cardiac markers will be elevated FIRST if the patient had an MI?
- A. Troponin
- B. CK
- C. Myoglobin
- D. LD
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 332
Post-hepatic obstruction is characterized by a marked increase in alkaline phosphatase, GGT, conjugated bilirubin, as well as other hepatic enzymes. The slight rise of ALT suggests that the issue is not hepatitis.
Renal and cardiovascular failure do not match the symptom of jaundice or the abnormal laboratory values.
Chem
Which of the following conditions would be suggested by a jaundiced patient experiencing a marked rise in alkaline phosphatase, conjugated bilirubin, and a slight rise in ALT:
- A. Cardiovascular disease
- B. Renal failure
- C. Post-hepatic obstruction
- D. Hepatitis
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 333
Plasma concentrations of creatinine are used to assess renal function. Creatinine clearance is based on the serum creatinine level and is used to measure glomerular filtration rate, or GFR.
An increased serum level of which of the following analytes is MOST commonly associated with decreased glomerular filtration?
- A. Uric acid
- B. Creatinine
- C. Urea
- D. Glucose
- E. Ammonia
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 334
White top tubes are used for blood cultures.
Question options:
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 335
The laboratory employee with a 4-year college degree who performs clinical analysis is the:
- A. clinical laboratory assistant (CLA)
- B. medical laboratory technician (MLT)
- C. clinical laboratory scientist (CLS) or medical laboratory scientist (MLS) in newer terminology or Medical Technologist (MT) in older terminology
- D. phlebotomist
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 336
Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTR) usually occur within which time period?
- A. 5 hours after transfusion
- B. one year after transfusion answer
- C. 24 hours after transfusion
- D. 3-10 days after transfusion
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 337
Report the isolate as coagulase negative Staphylococcus is the correct answer because this is an isolate from a urine specimen with a coagulase negative Staphylococcus susceptible to novobiocin. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is resistant to novobiocin. Further testing is required to speciate coagulase negative Staphylococci but only if the specimen is from a sterile body site, not urine.
Gram positive cocci isolated from a catheterized urine culture on a 76-year-old male gave the following reactions:
Blood agar- creamy, white, opaque colonies
Catalase- positive
Slide coagulase- negative
Tube coagulase- negative
Novobiocin- susceptible
The next action the MLS should take is:
- A. Perform further testing to speciate the organism
- B. Report the isolate as Staphylococcus epidermidis
- C. Report the isolate as Staphylococcus saprophyticus
- D. Report the isolate as coagulase negative staphylococcus
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 338
Isotonic or normal saline is a 0.85 % solution of sodium chloride in water.
The concentration of sodium chloride in an isotonic solution is :
- A. 8.5 %
- B. 1 molar
- C. 0.85 %
- D. 0.08 %
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 339
A negative glucose oxidase test and a positive test for reducing sugars in urine indicates the presence of a non-glucose reducing sugar such as galactose, fructose, glyceraldehyde, etc. This is the reason that certain patient populations require additional confirmatory sugar testing on their urine samples.
A negative glucose oxidase test and a positive test for reducing sugars in urine indicates:
- A. A false-negative glucose oxidation reaction
- B. True glycosuria
- C. The presence of a non-glucose reducing sugar such as galactose
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 340
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