Achive your Success with Latest AAPC CPC Exam [Apr 26, 2026]
The CPC Exam Test For Brief Preparation
NEW QUESTION # 14
(A 40-year-old woman with progressive sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear has acochlear implantplaced for the right ear. Anesthesia is provided by aCRNAwithmedical directionby an anesthesiologist who is concurrently directing 5 CRNAs. Physical status is3. What anesthesia CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported by theanesthesiologist?)
- A. 00300-QY-P3, H90.5
- B. 00120-AA-P3, H90.41
- C. 00300-QX-P3, H90.5
- D. 00120-AD-P3, H90.41
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cochlear implant surgery is anearprocedure and maps to anesthesia code00120in this question's option framework. The anesthesiologist ismedically directingCRNAs and is concurrently directing5CRNAs. Under anesthesia modifier rules, when an anesthesiologist is directingmore than fourconcurrent anesthesia procedures, the correct modifier isAD(medical supervision by a physician: more than four concurrent anesthesia procedures). Physical status is given asP3(severe systemic disease), so append-P3. The diagnosis is progressive sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear; in the options,H90.41represents unilateral sensorineural hearing loss (right ear) as provided. Options usingAAwould indicate the anesthesiologist personally performed anesthesia (not true here), andQY/QXrepresent medical direction structures but do not match the
"more than four" concurrency described (which specifically triggersADin these exam-style choices).
Therefore, the correct reporting by the anesthesiologist is00120-AD-P3, H90.41.
NEW QUESTION # 15
A patient undergoes coronary angiography for chest pain. Coronary arteries are normal, and CAD is ruled out.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
- A. 93454, R07.9
- B. 93455, R07.9
- C. 93455, I25.10, R07.9
- D. 93454, I25.10, R07.9
Answer: A
Explanation:
93454 = Coronary angiography
R07.9 = Chest pain, unspecified
CAD code is not reported when ruled out
NEW QUESTION # 16
Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
Anesthesia: General.0
Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required # limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition.
There were no complications.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 52320-RT, 52332-RT
- B. 52353-RT, 52332-RT
- C. 52356-RT, 52332-RT
- D. 52356-RT
Answer: D
Explanation:
52356 = Cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy, lithotripsy and stent placement Combination code # do not report components separately
NEW QUESTION # 17
View MR 005398
MR 005398
Operative Report
Preoperative Diagnosis: Nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.
Postoperative Diagnosis: Nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.
Procedure: Right nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy.
Findings and Procedure: Under satisfactory general anesthesia, the patient was placed in the right flank position. Right flank and abdomen were prepared and draped out of the sterile field. Skin incision was made between the 11th and 12th ribs laterally. The incision was carried down through the underlying subcutaneous tissues, muscles, and fascia. The right retroperitoneal space was entered. Using blunt and sharp dissection, the right kidney was freed circumferentially. The right artery, vein, and ureter were identified. The ureter was dissected downward where it is completely obstructed in its distal extent. The ureter was clipped and divided distally. The right renal artery was then isolated and divided between 0 silk suture ligatures. The right renal vein was also ligated with suture ligatures and 0 silk ties. The right kidney and ureter were then submitted for pathologic evaluation. The operative field was inspected, and there was no residual bleeding noted, and then it was carefully irrigated with sterile water. Wound closure was then undertaken using 0 Vicryl for the fascial layers, 0 Vicryl for the muscular layers, 2-0 chromic for subcutaneous tissue, and clips for the skin. A Penrose drain was brought out through the dependent aspect of the incision. The patient lost minimal blood and tolerated the procedure well.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
The procedure involves a right nephrectomy with partial ureterectomy for a nonfunctioning right kidney with ureteral stricture.
Procedure Description:
Right nephrectomy (removal of the kidney).
Partial ureterectomy (removal of part of the ureter).
CPT Coding:
50220: Nephrectomy, including partial ureterectomy, any open approach.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on nephrectomy procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 18
A 44-year-old female patient with chest pains had a CT of her chest that identified a mass in her left lower lung. The patient currently has ovarian cancer with metastases to the liver. The radiologist suspects the cancer has spread to her lungs. The physician performed an outpatient bronchoscopic biopsy and the pathology report documents the mass as a tumor of uncertain behavior.
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this patient?
- A. C56.9, C78.7, C78.02
- B. R91.8, C56.9, C78.7
- C. D38.1, C56.9, C78.7
- D. C78.02, C22.9, C79.82
Answer: C
Explanation:
For a patient with a mass in the left lower lung suspected to be cancer that is currently documented as a tumor of uncertain behavior, with existing ovarian cancer with metastases to the liver, the ICD-10-CM codes are:
* D38.1: Neoplasm of uncertain behavior of bronchus and lung.
* C56.9: Malignant neoplasm of unspecified ovary.
* C78.7: Secondary malignant neoplasm of liver and intrahepatic bile duct.
D38.1 is used because the behavior of the lung tumor is uncertain, and C56.9 and C78.7 are used to document the known primary and metastatic cancers.
References:
* ICD-10-CM guidelines
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 19
(A 32-year-old is in the outpatient clinic for anesophagoscopydue to increased difficulty swallowing with hiseosinophilic esophagitis. The flexible scope is inserted into the esophagus. Examination notes narrowing in the distal esophagus. Following an injection of Kenalog, atransendoscopic balloon dilationis performed in the area of stenosis, eventually reaching 18 mm. What CPT coding is reported for this procedure?)
- A. 43220, 43204
- B. 43214, 43201
- C. 43220, 43200-59
- D. 43220, 43201
Answer: D
Explanation:
This encounter includes two reportable endoscopic services:esophagoscopy with dilationand asubmucosal injectionperformed via the endoscope. Balloon dilation of an esophageal stricture/stenosis performed transendoscopically is captured by43220(esophagoscopy, flexible, transoral; with transendoscopic balloon dilation of esophagus). The scenario also documents aninjection of Kenalogdelivered endoscopically to the stenotic area; endoscopic injection is reported with43201(esophagoscopy with directed submucosal injection
[s]). These services are not mutually exclusive when both are performed and documented, and no separate diagnostic-only esophagoscopy code is reported because the therapeutic codes include the scope. Option D is incorrect because43200is the base diagnostic esophagoscopy and should not be reported in addition to the therapeutic dilation; modifier -59 does not fix that bundling. Options A and B include codes that do not match the described esophagoscopy balloon dilation plus injection combination. Therefore,43220 and 43201is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A patient who has colon adenocarcinoma undergoes an open partial colectomy. The surgeon removes the proximal colon and terminal ileum and reconnects the cut ends of the distal ileum and remaining colon.
What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported?
- A. 44205, C18.9
- B. 44160, C18.2
- C. 44140, C18.9
- D. 44204, C18.2
Answer: B
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient underwent an open partial colectomy involving the removal of the proximal colon and terminal ileum with reconnection of the distal ileum to the remaining colon.
CPTCode 44160 is specific for an open partial colectomy with removal of a portion of the colon and the terminal ileum with an ileocolostomy (reconnection of the ileum to the colon). This accurately describes the procedure performed.
Code 44140 is for a partial colectomy without removal of the terminal ileum, making it inappropriate in this case.
Codes 44205 and 44204 involve laparoscopic approaches for colectomy procedures, but since this procedure was open, these codes are not suitable.
2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:
ICD-10-CM Code C18.2 is for a malignant neoplasm of the ascending colon, which is specified in this case as colon adenocarcinoma.
Code C18.9 represents an unspecified malignant neoplasm of the colon, which is less specific than C18.2.
Therefore, C18.2 is the most accurate choice based on the location of the adenocarcinoma.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
Per AAPC guidelines, selecting the correct colectomy code involves identifying the specific approach (open vs. laparoscopic) and anatomical structures resected, both of which align with 44160 for this open ileocolic resection.
Thus, the correct answer, based on CPTand ICD-10-CM guidelines, is D. 44160, C18.2.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
Anesthesia: General.0
Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required # limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition.
There were no complications.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
- A. 27380, S76.311A
- B. 27385, S76.311A
- C. 27385, S76.911A
- D. 27380, S76.911A
Answer: A
Explanation:
27380 = Repair, quadriceps muscle
S76.311A = Strain of muscle, fascia, tendon of right thigh, initial encounter Code selection is based on specific muscle group and laterality
NEW QUESTION # 22
A 20-year-old female is being seen for the first time by a primary care physician to have a yearly physical.
During the examination for the physical, the provider discovers non-inflammed lesions on her legs and arms.
The physician performs a complete physical and additional separate documentation for the treatment of the lesions on the bilateral upper and lower extremities. The provider has the patient buy an over-the-counter ointment and will continue to watch them.
What CPT coding is reported for this visit?
- A. 0
- B. 99385, 99203-25
- C. 1
- D. 99385-25, 99203
Answer: B
Explanation:
CPT code 99385 is used for initial comprehensive preventive medicine evaluation and management of an individual, including a detailed history and examination, and anticipatory guidance. Since additional documentation and treatment for non-inflamed lesions are provided, an additional E/M service code 99203 with modifier -25 (significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service by the same physician on the same day) is appropriate to indicate both services were rendered. References: CPT Professional Edition (current year), AMA.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Ten-year-old boy has a painful felon abscess of the deep tissues of the palmar surface of his right thumb. The provider makes an incision on one side of the nail and then across the fingertip parallel to the end of the nail.
He identifies the area of abscess and drains it. A drainage tube is inserted.
What CPTand ICD-10-CM is reported?
- A. 10061-F5, L03.011
- B. 26010-F5, L02.511
- C. 26011-F5, L03.011
- D. 10140-F5, L02.511
Answer: B
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The procedure involves an incision and drainage (I&D) of a deep abscess (felon) on the palmar surface of the right thumb. A felon is an abscess in the pulp of the fingertip, often involving deep tissue.
Code 26010 is specific for incision and drainage of a finger abscess, which includes the thumb. This code applies to cases where the abscess is drained from a deep tissue level.
Code 26011 is similar but involves the use of extensive drainage or debridement, which is not indicated in this case. Therefore, 26011 is not appropriate here.
Code 10061 refers to incision and drainage of abscesses at different locations on the body but not for specific areas such as the thumb, making it inappropriate in this context.
Code 10140 pertains to the evacuation of hematoma, seroma, or fluid but does not apply to abscesses, so it is not suitable for this scenario.
2. Modifier:
Modifier F5 is added to specify that the procedure was performed on the right thumb.
3. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:
ICD-10-CM Code L02.511 is appropriate for cutaneous abscess of the right finger, as it accurately describes the diagnosis of a felon on the thumb.
L03.011 would represent cellulitis but does not specify an abscess, making it less precise for this case.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
The AAPC guidelines for coding finger abscess drainage emphasize the selection of specific codes for deep tissue drainage procedures in extremities. Additionally, correct laterality should be included with the use of modifiers and specific ICD-10-CM codes for an accurate representation of the site and nature of the condition.
Thus, based on the coding standards and guidelines, the verified answer is B. 26010-F5, L02.511.
NEW QUESTION # 24
View MR 001394
MR 001394
Operative Report
Procedure: Excision of 11 cm back lesion with rotation flap repair.
Preoperative Diagnosis: Basal cell carcinoma
Postoperative Diagnosis: Same
Anesthesia: 1% Xylocaine solution with epinephrine warmed and buffered and injected slowly through a 30-gauge needle for the patient's comfort.
Location: Back
Size of Excision: 11 cm
Estimated Blood Loss: Minimal
Complications: None
Specimen: Sent to the lab in saline for frozen section margin control.
Procedure: The patient was taken to our surgical suite, placed in a comfortable position, prepped and draped, and locally anesthetized in the usual sterile fashion. A #15 scalpel blade was used to excise the basal cell carcinoma plus a margin of normal skin in a circular fashion in the natural relaxed skin tension lines as much as possible The lesion was removed full thickness including epidermis, dermis, and partial thickness subcutaneous tissues. The wound was then spot electro desiccated for hemorrhage control. The specimen was sent to the lab on saline for frozen section.
Rotation flap repair of defect created by foil thickness frozen section excision of basal cell carcinoma of the back. We were able to devise a 12 sq cm flap and advance it using rotation flap closure technique. This will prevent infection, dehiscence, and help reconstruct the area to approximate the situation as it was prior to surgical excision diminishing the risk of significant pain and distortion of the anatomy in the area. This was advanced medially to close the defect with 5 0 Vicryl and 6-0 Prolene stitches.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?
- A. 14001, 11606-51, 12034-51
- B. 0
- C. 14001, 11606-51
- D. 1
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 25
An 8-year-old patient is placed under general anesthesia for treatment of a right orbital fracture due to a traumatic fall to the nose and face from a swing set. An on-call otolaryngologist is asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination to evaluate the patient. A mild nasal fracture is the diagnosis given by the otolaryngologist.
What is the CPTand ICD-10-CM coding for the otolaryngologist's services?
- A. 0
- B. 21310, 92502-51
- C. 1
- D. 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The otolaryngologist was asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination of the patient under general anesthesia to evaluate for injuries sustained from a traumatic fall.
CPTCode 92502 is appropriate for a general otolaryngologic examination under general anesthesia. This code is used specifically when an ENT examination is performed under anesthesia, as was the case here.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 92512 is for nasal function studies, such as rhinomanometry, which does not apply to a general otolaryngologic examination.
Code 21310 is for the treatment of a nasal fracture (closed treatment), which would only be appropriate if the otolaryngologist had performed a fracture reduction or repair. Since only an examination was performed,
21310 is not appropriate.
Code 92502-51 (option B) is incorrect because the -51 modifier (multiple procedures) is unnecessary; only a single examination was performed.
3. ICD-10-CM Code:
Since only the examination was performed and not treatment, the ICD-10-CM code for nasal fracture (likely S02.2XXA for unspecified fracture of the nasal bones, initial encounter) would be reported separately by the facility or based on final documentation.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
AAPC guidelines support the use of 92502 for general ENT examinations performed under anesthesia, especially in cases of trauma evaluation without surgical intervention.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. 92502.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A 60-year-old male has three-vessel disease and supraventricular tachycardia which has been refractory to other management. He previously had pacemaker placement and stenting of LAD coronary artery stenosis, which has failed to solve the problem. He will undergo CABG with autologous saphenous vein and an extensive modified MAZE procedure to treat the tachycardia.
He is brought to the cardiac OR and placed in the supine position on the OR table. He is prepped and draped, and adequate endotracheal anesthesia is assured. A median sternotomy incision is made and cardiopulmonary bypass is initiated. The endoscope is used to harvest an adequate length of saphenous vein from his left leg.
This is uneventful and bleeding is easily controlled. The vein graft is prepared and cut to the appropriate lengths for anastomosis. Two bypasses are performed: one to the circumflex and another to the obtuse marginal. The left internal mammary is then freed up and it is anastomosed to the ramus, the first diagonal, and the LAD. An extensive maze procedure is then performed and the patient is weaned from bypass. At this point, the sternum is closed with wires and the skin is reapproximated with staples. The patient tolerated the procedure without difficulty and was taken to the PACU.
Choose the procedure codes for this surgery.
- A. 33535, 33259 51, 33519-51, 33508-51
- B. 33533, 33257, 33519, 33508
- C. 33533, 33257-51, 33519-51, 33508-51
- D. 33535, 33259, 33519, 33508
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CABG procedure involved multiple bypasses, with the use of autologous saphenous vein grafts and the left internal mammary artery, along with an extensive modified MAZE procedure. CPT code 33535 describes a coronary artery bypass using arterial grafts, including at least three coronary artery bypasses.
CPT code 33259-51 is for the MAZE procedure for supraventricular tachycardia, with the -51 modifier indicating multiple procedures. CPT code 33519-51 is for an additional vein graft, and CPT code 33508-51 describes the endoscopic harvesting of the vein.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Codes 33535, 33259-51, 33519-51, 33508-51
NEW QUESTION # 27
A patient with malignant lymphoma is administered the antineoplastic drug Rituximab 800 mg and then 100 mg of Benadryl.
Which HCPCS Level II codes are reported for both drugs administered intravenously?
- A. J9312 x 80, 00163 x 2
- B. J9312 x 80, J1200 x 2
- C. J9312, J1200
- D. J9312, Q0163
Answer: C
Explanation:
The patient with malignant lymphoma is administered Rituximab (800 mg) and Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.
Procedure Description:
Administration of Rituximab (800 mg) intravenously.
Administration of Benadryl (100 mg) intravenously.
HCPCS Level II Coding:
J9312: Injection, Rituximab, 10 mg.
For 800 mg, report 80 units of J9312.
J1200: Injection, Diphenhydramine HCl, up to 50 mg.
For 100 mg, report 2 units of J1200.
HCPCS Level II Code Book (current year).
HCPCS Level II coding guidelines for intravenous drug administration.
NEW QUESTION # 28
A patient arrives for a PEG placement. The patient requires tube feeds for nutrition but frequently pulls out the dobhoffs tube. An EGD was performed. Several attempts were made to place the PEG tube without success so the procedure was aborted. During the withdraw of the scope, a small hiatal hernia was noted in the stomach. The scope was removed the the patient transferred to recovery.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM coding is reported?
- A. 49450-53, K94.29, K44.9
- B. 43246-53, K94.29, K44.9
- C. 43246, K94.29, Z93.1
- D. :43830-52, Z43.1
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 29
A cardiologist performs and interprets a 12-lead ECG in the office.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 93000-26
- B. 93010-26
- C. 0
- D. 1
Answer: C
Explanation:
93000 = ECG with tracing, interpretation, and report
93010 = Interpretation only
NEW QUESTION # 30
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